Class 7 Science Olympiad – Practice Questions

Question 1: Variegated Leaf Test

A variegated leaf (green and white patches) is kept in sunlight for a few hours, decolourised in warm alcohol and tested with iodine solution. Which parts turn blue-black?

A) Both patches equally
B) Only the white patches
C) Only the green patches
D) Neither part
Correct Answer: C) Only the green patches

Explanation: Only cells with chlorophyll can photosynthesise and store starch. Iodine turns blue-black with starch, so only the green patches change colour.

Question 2: Pitcher Plant

A pitcher plant grows well in nitrogen-poor soil because it traps insects. What does it mainly obtain from the digested insects?

A) Nitrogenous compounds
B) Sunlight energy
C) Chlorophyll
D) Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: A) Nitrogenous compounds

Explanation: It still makes its own food by photosynthesis, but the trapped insects supply the nitrogen compounds that the soil lacks.

Question 3: Root Nodules

Rhizobium bacteria live in the root nodules of gram and pea plants. Their main contribution to the plant is to

A) prepare sugar by photosynthesis
B) make chlorophyll in roots
C) absorb water from the soil
D) convert atmospheric nitrogen into soluble compounds
Correct Answer: D) convert atmospheric nitrogen into soluble compounds

Explanation: Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form, while the plant gives the bacteria food and shelter. This partnership is called symbiosis.

Question 4: Matching Modes of Nutrition

Which pair correctly matches the organism with its mode of nutrition?

A) Cuscuta – saprotroph; Mushroom – autotroph
B) Cuscuta – saprotroph; Mushroom – parasite
C) Cuscuta – parasite; Mushroom – saprotroph
D) Cuscuta – autotroph; Mushroom – parasite
Correct Answer: C) Cuscuta – parasite; Mushroom – saprotroph

Explanation: Cuscuta (amarbel) takes ready-made food from its host, so it is a parasite. A mushroom feeds on dead and decaying matter, so it is a saprotroph.

Question 5: Oxygen from Sugar

In photosynthesis, 6 molecules of carbon dioxide react with 6 molecules of water. How many molecules of oxygen are released for each molecule of glucose formed?

A) 1
B) 12
C) 6
D) 3
Correct Answer: C) 6

Explanation: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ (in sunlight, with chlorophyll). Six oxygen molecules are released per glucose molecule.

Question 6: Stomata at Work

Stomata on a leaf are surrounded by guard cells. Through the stomata, a leaf mainly

A) absorbs minerals from the soil
B) stores starch for the winter
C) transports food to the stem
D) exchanges gases and loses water vapour
Correct Answer: D) exchanges gases and loses water vapour

Explanation: Stomata let carbon dioxide in and oxygen out for photosynthesis, and water vapour escapes through them (transpiration).

Question 7: Plant in the Dark

A potted plant is kept in complete darkness for a week. Which statement is most likely to be true?

A) It releases more oxygen than before
B) It cannot photosynthesise and stops making new starch
C) It absorbs carbon dioxide faster than before
D) It makes starch using only water
Correct Answer: B) It cannot photosynthesise and stops making new starch

Explanation: Photosynthesis needs light to drive the reaction. Without light, the plant cannot prepare food and has to use up its stored food.

Question 8: Peas After Wheat

Farmers often grow a leguminous crop like peas between two wheat crops mainly to

A) add phosphorus to the soil
B) kill Rhizobium bacteria
C) remove excess water from the soil
D) restore nitrogen in the soil
Correct Answer: D) restore nitrogen in the soil

Explanation: Legumes have Rhizobium in their root nodules that fix atmospheric nitrogen, which enriches the soil for the next crop.

Question 9: Where Protein Digestion Begins

The digestion of proteins begins in the

A) small intestine
B) stomach
C) mouth
D) large intestine
Correct Answer: B) stomach

Explanation: Gastric juice contains hydrochloric acid and the enzyme pepsin, which starts protein digestion in the stomach. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth.

Question 10: Path of Food

Which sequence shows the correct path of food in humans?

A) Mouth → Oesophagus → Small intestine → Stomach → Large intestine
B) Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
C) Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Large intestine → Small intestine
D) Mouth → Stomach → Oesophagus → Small intestine → Large intestine
Correct Answer: B) Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine

Explanation: Food passes through the food pipe to the stomach, is absorbed in the small intestine, and water is absorbed in the large intestine.

Question 11: Why Villi?

The inner wall of the small intestine has millions of finger-like villi. Their main function is to

A) store undigested food
B) churn the food
C) increase the surface area for absorption of digested food
D) produce bile
Correct Answer: C) increase the surface area for absorption of digested food

Explanation: Villi are rich in blood vessels and greatly increase the surface area, so digested food is absorbed into the blood quickly.

Question 12: Amoeba's Meal

Amoeba catches food with pseudopodia. Digestion of the food then takes place in the

A) cell membrane
B) food vacuole
C) contractile vacuole
D) nucleus
Correct Answer: B) food vacuole

Explanation: The food is engulfed in a food vacuole, where digestive juices break it down. The undigested part is expelled from the cell surface.

Question 13: Bile

Which digestive juice contains no enzymes but still helps in the digestion of fats?

A) Bile
B) Saliva
C) Gastric juice
D) Pancreatic juice
Correct Answer: A) Bile

Explanation: Bile from the liver breaks fat into tiny droplets so that enzymes can act on it. Saliva, gastric juice and pancreatic juice all contain enzymes.

Question 14: Sweet Bread

When we chew a piece of bread for a few minutes, it slowly starts tasting sweet because

A) saliva contains a lot of sugar
B) bread absorbs sugar from the teeth
C) pepsin acts on the bread
D) salivary amylase turns starch into sugar
Correct Answer: D) salivary amylase turns starch into sugar

Explanation: Saliva contains the enzyme amylase, which begins the breakdown of starch (a carbohydrate) into sugar in the mouth.

Question 15: Teeth Count

How many teeth does a healthy adult normally have?

A) 32
B) 28
C) 36
D) 20
Correct Answer: A) 32

Explanation: A child has 20 milk teeth, which are replaced by 32 permanent teeth in an adult.

Question 16: Chewing the Cud

Cows chew cud because

A) their stomach has no enzymes
B) cud is bile from the liver
C) grass is first swallowed and stored in the rumen and is later brought back to the mouth to be chewed again
D) they cannot swallow fresh grass
Correct Answer: C) grass is first swallowed and stored in the rumen and is later brought back to the mouth to be chewed again

Explanation: Ruminants quickly swallow grass, which is partially digested in the rumen. They later return this cud to the mouth and chew it thoroughly.

Question 17: Who Spins the Cocoon?

In the life cycle of the silk moth, which stage spins the cocoon?

A) Adult moth
B) Egg
C) Pupa
D) Caterpillar (silkworm)
Correct Answer: D) Caterpillar (silkworm)

Explanation: The caterpillar spins silk fibre from special glands around itself as a cocoon, and then turns into a pupa inside it.

Question 18: Protein Fibres

Which pair contains only fibres that are proteins?

A) Silk and polyester
B) Wool and silk
C) Wool and nylon
D) Cotton and jute
Correct Answer: B) Wool and silk

Explanation: Wool and silk are animal fibres made of protein. Cotton and jute are plant fibres; nylon and polyester are synthetic.

Question 19: Cleaning the Wool

Washing sheared wool in tanks to remove grease, dust and dirt is called

A) sorting
B) reeling
C) scouring
D) shearing
Correct Answer: C) scouring

Explanation: After shearing, the fleece is scoured. Sorting separates hair of different textures, and reeling is a silk process.

Question 20: Pashmina

Wool used to make Pashmina shawls is obtained from the

A) Alpaca
B) Bactrian camel
C) Kashmiri goat
D) Angora rabbit
Correct Answer: C) Kashmiri goat

Explanation: Pashmina comes from the fine underhair of the Kashmiri goat.

Question 21: Reeling

Taking out silk threads from cocoons is called

A) scouring
B) reeling
C) retting
D) shearing
Correct Answer: B) reeling

Explanation: The silk fibre of cocoons is loosened by heat and the threads are reeled off and twisted into yarn. Retting is used for jute.

Question 22: Life Cycle of the Silk Moth

Which is the correct order of stages in the life cycle of the silk moth?

A) Egg → Caterpillar → Adult moth → Pupa
B) Egg → Caterpillar → Pupa → Adult moth
C) Egg → Pupa → Caterpillar → Adult moth
D) Caterpillar → Egg → Pupa → Adult moth
Correct Answer: B) Egg → Caterpillar → Pupa → Adult moth

Explanation: A silk moth lays eggs, from which caterpillars hatch. The caterpillar spins a cocoon and becomes a pupa, which later emerges as an adult moth.

Question 23: Burrs

During the processing of wool, the small fluffy fibres that are picked out of the hair after sorting are called

A) cocoons
B) scales
C) pupae
D) burrs
Correct Answer: D) burrs

Explanation: After sorting, small fluffy fibres called burrs are picked out. The hair is then washed, dried, dyed and spun into yarn.

Question 24: Litmus and Turmeric

A liquid turns blue litmus paper red and has no effect on turmeric paper. The liquid is

A) an acid
B) either an acid or a base
C) a base
D) a neutral salt solution
Correct Answer: A) an acid

Explanation: Acids turn blue litmus red and leave turmeric unchanged. A base would turn red litmus blue and turmeric paper red.

Question 25: Antacid Tablet

Milk of magnesia is taken for acidity because it

A) neutralises the excess acid in the stomach
B) turns red litmus red
C) adds more acid
D) is a salt that dissolves in acid
Correct Answer: A) neutralises the excess acid in the stomach

Explanation: Milk of magnesia is a base. It reacts with the excess hydrochloric acid to form a salt and water (neutralisation).

Question 26: Ant Sting

An ant sting injects formic acid. Which of these gives relief when applied to the skin?

A) Lemon juice
B) Vinegar
C) Calamine solution
D) Tamarind pulp
Correct Answer: C) Calamine solution

Explanation: Calamine solution (zinc carbonate) is a base and neutralises the acid. Vinegar, lemon juice and tamarind are acidic.

Question 27: China Rose Indicator

China rose extract is used as an indicator. What colour does it turn in soap solution?

A) Red
B) No change
C) Green
D) Magenta (dark pink)
Correct Answer: C) Green

Explanation: China rose turns acidic solutions magenta and basic solutions green. Soap solution is basic, so it turns green.

Question 28: Sour Soil

A farmer's soil is too acidic for a crop. Which substance should be added to improve it?

A) Vinegar
B) Ammonium sulphate
C) Lemon juice
D) Slaked lime
Correct Answer: D) Slaked lime

Explanation: Slaked lime is a base and neutralises the acid in the soil. The other substances are acidic or would make the soil more acidic.

Question 29: Pink Solution

A colourless solution turns pink on adding a few drops of phenolphthalein. The solution is

A) a mixture of an acid and a salt
B) acidic
C) basic
D) neutral
Correct Answer: C) basic

Explanation: Phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic and neutral solutions and turns pink in a basic solution.

Question 30: Products of Neutralisation

When hydrochloric acid reacts completely with sodium hydroxide, the products are

A) water and carbon dioxide
B) sodium chloride and hydrogen
C) sodium chloride and water
D) sodium and chlorine
Correct Answer: C) sodium chloride and water

Explanation: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O. The reaction between an acid and a base gives a salt and water.

Question 31: Household Base

Which household substance is basic in nature?

A) Curd
B) Vinegar
C) Lemon juice
D) Baking soda solution
Correct Answer: D) Baking soda solution

Explanation: Baking soda solution turns red litmus blue. Lemon juice, curd and vinegar are acidic.

Question 32: Conditions for Rusting

Iron nails are kept in three test tubes: (1) dry air, (2) boiled water covered with a layer of oil, (3) tap water open to air. In which will the nails rust?

A) In all three tubes
B) Only in test tube 3
C) In tubes 1 and 2
D) Only in test tube 1
Correct Answer: B) Only in test tube 3

Explanation: Rusting needs both oxygen and moisture. Tube 1 has no water, and tube 2 has no dissolved oxygen. Tube 3 has both.

Question 33: Chemical or Physical?

Which of the following is a chemical change?

A) Cutting paper into pieces
B) Curdling of milk
C) Dissolving sugar in water
D) Melting of ice
Correct Answer: B) Curdling of milk

Explanation: In curdling, milk changes into curd and whey, which are new substances that cannot be turned back into milk. The others are physical changes.

Question 34: Zinc Coat

Coating iron with a layer of zinc to protect it from rusting is called

A) crystallisation
B) galvanisation
C) sublimation
D) neutralisation
Correct Answer: B) galvanisation

Explanation: Zinc protects the iron from air and moisture. It is used for iron pipes, buckets and fencing.

Question 35: Nail in Blue Solution

An iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution for about half an hour. The nail turns brownish and the blue solution turns

A) colourless
B) deeper blue
C) pale green
D) yellow
Correct Answer: C) pale green

Explanation: Iron displaces copper. Copper deposits on the nail (brown) and iron sulphate, which is pale green, forms in the solution.

Question 36: Vinegar and Baking Soda

Vinegar is added to baking soda and the gas released is passed through lime water. What happens?

A) It turns milky because the gas is carbon dioxide
B) It stays clear because the gas is nitrogen
C) It turns blue because the gas is oxygen
D) It turns milky because the gas is hydrogen
Correct Answer: A) It turns milky because the gas is carbon dioxide

Explanation: Carbon dioxide reacts with lime water (calcium hydroxide) to form a milky white precipitate of calcium carbonate.

Question 37: Burning Candle

When a candle burns, which of these changes take place?

A) Only a chemical change
B) Only a physical change
C) Neither a physical nor a chemical change
D) Both physical change (melting of wax) and chemical change (burning)
Correct Answer: D) Both physical change (melting of wax) and chemical change (burning)

Explanation: Wax melts near the flame (physical). The wax vapour burns to form carbon dioxide and water vapour (chemical).

Question 38: Growing Crystals

Large crystals of copper sulphate can be obtained from its hot saturated solution by

A) adding more water
B) passing steam through it
C) cooling the solution slowly
D) shaking it vigorously
Correct Answer: C) cooling the solution slowly

Explanation: As the saturated solution cools slowly, the dissolved substance separates as crystals. This is called crystallisation.

Question 39: Two Chemical Changes

Which pair contains two chemical changes?

A) Ripening of fruit and burning of paper
B) Melting of butter and dissolving of salt
C) Freezing of water and burning of paper
D) Ripening of fruit and boiling of water
Correct Answer: A) Ripening of fruit and burning of paper

Explanation: Ripening and burning produce new substances. Freezing, boiling, melting and dissolving change only the state or form.

Question 40: Rising Dough

Yeast is added to dough to make bread rise. The dough rises because yeast respires without oxygen and releases

A) nitrogen
B) oxygen
C) hydrogen
D) carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: D) carbon dioxide

Explanation: Yeast breaks down sugar without oxygen, forming alcohol and carbon dioxide. The gas bubbles make the dough swell.

Question 41: Muscle Cramps

During a sprint, muscle cells get too little oxygen and respire anaerobically. The substance that builds up and causes cramps is

A) lactic acid
B) carbon dioxide
C) glucose
D) alcohol
Correct Answer: A) lactic acid

Explanation: Anaerobic respiration in muscle cells breaks glucose down only partially, forming lactic acid and a small amount of energy.

Question 42: Diaphragm Movement

When we breathe in, the diaphragm

A) moves up and the ribs move up
B) moves down and the ribs move down
C) moves down and the ribs move up and outwards
D) moves up and the ribs move down
Correct Answer: C) moves down and the ribs move up and outwards

Explanation: This enlarges the chest cavity and lowers the pressure inside, so air rushes into the lungs.

Question 43: Waterlogged Plant

A potted plant is over-watered so that the soil is completely filled with water. The plant may die because

A) the roots cannot get oxygen for respiration
B) the leaves cannot make sugar from water
C) the stem cannot respire
D) the roots do not need water
Correct Answer: A) the roots cannot get oxygen for respiration

Explanation: Roots respire using oxygen from the air spaces in the soil. Waterlogging fills these spaces with water.

Question 44: Aerobic vs Anaerobic

Which statement about respiration in muscle cells is correct?

A) Anaerobic respiration gives alcohol and carbon dioxide
B) Anaerobic respiration needs more oxygen than aerobic respiration
C) Anaerobic respiration gives lactic acid and much less energy than aerobic respiration
D) Anaerobic respiration gives carbon dioxide and more energy than aerobic respiration
Correct Answer: C) Anaerobic respiration gives lactic acid and much less energy than aerobic respiration

Explanation: Aerobic respiration breaks glucose down completely (to carbon dioxide and water) and releases much more energy. In muscles, anaerobic respiration ends with lactic acid.

Question 45: Breathing Rate

At rest, a healthy adult breathes about

A) 30–35 times per minute
B) 60–70 times per minute
C) 15–18 times per minute
D) 5–8 times per minute
Correct Answer: C) 15–18 times per minute

Explanation: The breathing rate rises during exercise because the body needs more oxygen.

Question 46: Breathing Through the Skin

Earthworms breathe mainly through their

A) gills
B) moist skin
C) spiracles
D) lungs
Correct Answer: B) moist skin

Explanation: Oxygen dissolves in the moisture on the earthworm's skin and diffuses into the blood.

Question 47: Insect Breathing

Air enters a cockroach's body through tiny openings on its sides called

A) spiracles
B) lenticels
C) stomata
D) gills
Correct Answer: A) spiracles

Explanation: Spiracles open into a network of air tubes (tracheae) that carry air to all body parts.

Question 48: Clotting

Which component of blood helps in clotting at a cut and stops bleeding?

A) Haemoglobin
B) White blood cells
C) Platelets
D) Red blood cells
Correct Answer: C) Platelets

Explanation: Platelets stick together at a wound and help form a clot that seals the cut.

Question 49: Pulmonary Vein

Which blood vessel carries oxygen-rich blood?

A) All veins
B) Vena cava
C) Pulmonary artery
D) Pulmonary vein
Correct Answer: D) Pulmonary vein

Explanation: The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

Question 50: Heart Chambers

Which chamber of the human heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the whole body?

A) Left ventricle
B) Right atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left atrium
Correct Answer: A) Left ventricle

Explanation: The left ventricle has the thickest wall and pushes oxygenated blood into the aorta. The right ventricle pumps blood only to the lungs.

Question 51: Water Highway

In plants, water and minerals absorbed by the roots are carried to the leaves by the

A) stomata
B) xylem
C) phloem
D) root hairs
Correct Answer: B) xylem

Explanation: Xylem vessels carry water and minerals upward, pulled by the loss of water vapour from the leaves (transpiration). Phloem carries food.

Question 52: Nitrogenous Waste

The main nitrogenous waste excreted in human urine is

A) glucose
B) urea
C) ammonia
D) uric acid
Correct Answer: B) urea

Explanation: The kidneys filter urea, excess water and salts out of the blood to form urine. Birds and reptiles excrete uric acid.

Question 53: Heartbeat

The normal pulse rate of a healthy adult at rest is about

A) 20 beats per minute
B) 200 beats per minute
C) 120 beats per minute
D) 72 beats per minute
Correct Answer: D) 72 beats per minute

Explanation: The pulse is the throb of an artery as the heart pumps blood. It equals the heartbeat rate, about 72 per minute at rest.

Question 54: Red Pigment

The red pigment haemoglobin, which carries oxygen, is found in

A) plasma
B) white blood cells
C) red blood cells
D) platelets
Correct Answer: C) red blood cells

Explanation: Haemoglobin in red blood cells combines with oxygen in the lungs and releases it to the body cells.

Question 55: Not an Excretory Organ

Which of these is NOT an excretory organ in humans?

A) Skin
B) Stomach
C) Kidney
D) Lungs
Correct Answer: B) Stomach

Explanation: Kidneys remove urea, skin removes sweat and lungs remove carbon dioxide. The stomach digests food.

Question 56: Leaf Buds

Small plantlets grow from the notches of a Bryophyllum leaf that falls on wet soil. This method of reproduction is called

A) fragmentation
B) budding
C) vegetative propagation
D) spore formation
Correct Answer: C) vegetative propagation

Explanation: New plants grow from a vegetative part (the leaf) without seeds or spores. Budding is seen in yeast.

Question 57: After Fertilisation

After fertilisation in a flower, the ovule and the ovary develop into

A) fruit and seed respectively
B) seed and flower respectively
C) fruit and pollen respectively
D) seed and fruit respectively
Correct Answer: D) seed and fruit respectively

Explanation: The fertilised ovule becomes the seed containing the embryo, while the ovary becomes the fruit that protects the seeds.

Question 58: Water Traveller

Which seed or fruit is adapted for dispersal by water?

A) Balsam
B) Coconut
C) Maple
D) Xanthium
Correct Answer: B) Coconut

Explanation: The coconut has a fibrous, buoyant coat. Maple is dispersed by wind, Xanthium by animals (hooks) and balsam by the bursting of the fruit.

Question 59: Bisexual Flower

Which of these flowers is bisexual (has both stamens and a pistil)?

A) Cucumber
B) Maize
C) Rose
D) Papaya
Correct Answer: C) Rose

Explanation: Rose has both male and female parts. Papaya, cucumber and maize have unisexual flowers.

Question 60: Bee at Work

A bee carries pollen from a flower of one mango tree to a flower of another mango tree. This is

A) cross-pollination
B) self-pollination
C) vegetative propagation
D) fertilisation
Correct Answer: A) cross-pollination

Explanation: Pollen was transferred between flowers of different plants. Fertilisation happens later, when a male gamete fuses with an egg in the ovule.

Question 61: Spores

Bread mould and ferns reproduce by producing tiny

A) buds
B) seeds
C) cuttings
D) spores
Correct Answer: D) spores

Explanation: Spores are tiny reproductive units enclosed in a protective coat. They germinate into new plants in favourable conditions.

Question 62: Yeast Cell

A small bulb-like projection grows on a yeast cell, breaks off and becomes a new yeast cell. This method is called

A) spore formation
B) fragmentation
C) pollination
D) budding
Correct Answer: D) budding

Explanation: In budding the bud grows from the parent cell and later separates to live independently.

Question 63: Average Speed Trap

A bus covers the first 30 km at 60 km/h and the next 30 km at 30 km/h. What is its average speed for the whole 60 km?

A) 40 km/h
B) 45 km/h
C) 35 km/h
D) 50 km/h
Correct Answer: A) 40 km/h

Explanation: Time = 30/60 + 30/30 = 0.5 + 1 = 1.5 h. Average speed = 60 km ÷ 1.5 h = 40 km/h. It is not the simple average of the two speeds.

Question 64: Reading the Graph

The distance–time graph of a toy car is shown. What is the speed of the car during the last 2 seconds (from 4 s to 6 s)?

0246Time (s)0204060Distance (m)
A) 40 m/s
B) 20 m/s
C) 30 m/s
D) 10 m/s
Correct Answer: B) 20 m/s

Explanation: From 4 s to 6 s the distance changes from 20 m to 60 m: 40 m in 2 s, so the speed is 20 m/s. From 2 s to 4 s the car is at rest.

Question 65: Pendulum Period

A simple pendulum makes 30 oscillations in 1 minute. Its time period is

A) 1 s
B) 2 s
C) 30 s
D) 0.5 s
Correct Answer: B) 2 s

Explanation: Time period = total time ÷ number of oscillations = 60 s ÷ 30 = 2 s.

Question 66: Unit Conversion

A cyclist rides at 36 km/h. What is this speed in m/s?

A) 10 m/s
B) 100 m/s
C) 3.6 m/s
D) 36 m/s
Correct Answer: A) 10 m/s

Explanation: 36 km/h = 36 × 1000 m ÷ 3600 s = 10 m/s.

Question 67: Train and Pole

A train 150 m long passes a signal pole in 10 s. What is its speed in km/h?

A) 45 km/h
B) 54 km/h
C) 15 km/h
D) 60 km/h
Correct Answer: B) 54 km/h

Explanation: The train covers its own length: 150 m ÷ 10 s = 15 m/s. Then 15 × 18/5 = 54 km/h.

Question 68: Fastest Speed

Which of these speeds is the greatest?

A) 72 km/h
B) 25 m/s
C) 20 m/s
D) 1.2 km/min
Correct Answer: B) 25 m/s

Explanation: 72 km/h = 20 m/s, 1.2 km/min = 72 km/h = 20 m/s and 25 m/s = 90 km/h. So 25 m/s is the greatest.

Question 69: Meeting Trains

Two trains are 200 km apart and move towards each other at 60 km/h and 40 km/h. After how long do they meet?

A) 5 hours
B) 1 hour
C) 2.5 hours
D) 2 hours
Correct Answer: D) 2 hours

Explanation: Their distance closes at 60 + 40 = 100 km/h. Time = 200 ÷ 100 = 2 hours.

Question 70: Distance Meter

Which instrument in a vehicle records the distance travelled?

A) Barometer
B) Speedometer
C) Odometer
D) Stopwatch
Correct Answer: C) Odometer

Explanation: An odometer shows the total distance covered. The speedometer shows the speed at that moment.

Question 71: Fuse Wire

The wire used in an electric fuse should have

A) a very low resistance and a high melting point
B) a low melting point
C) no heating effect
D) a high melting point
Correct Answer: B) a low melting point

Explanation: When the current becomes too large, the fuse wire heats up and melts, breaking the circuit and protecting the appliances.

Question 72: Stronger Electromagnet

Which change makes an electromagnet stronger?

A) Increasing the number of turns of the coil
B) Removing one cell from the circuit
C) Replacing the iron core with a wooden rod
D) Using a copper core instead of an iron core
Correct Answer: A) Increasing the number of turns of the coil

Explanation: More turns (and more current, with a soft iron core) increase the magnetic effect. Wood and copper are not magnetic, and fewer cells give less current.

Question 73: Series Circuit

Two identical bulbs are connected in series with one cell as shown. If Bulb 1 fuses, what happens to Bulb 2?

Bulb 1Bulb 2Cell+
A) It glows brighter
B) It glows dimmer
C) It glows as before
D) It also goes off
Correct Answer: D) It also goes off

Explanation: A series circuit has only one path. When one bulb fuses, the circuit is broken and no current flows, so both bulbs go off.

Question 74: Cell Symbol

In the circuit symbol of a cell, the longer line represents the

A) positive terminal
B) negative terminal
C) switch
D) bulb filament
Correct Answer: A) positive terminal

Explanation: The longer thin line is the positive terminal and the shorter thick line is the negative terminal.

Question 75: Electroplating

Which effect of electric current is used in electroplating?

A) Heating effect
B) Lighting effect
C) Magnetic effect
D) Chemical effect
Correct Answer: D) Chemical effect

Explanation: When current passes through a conducting solution, chemical changes take place. In electroplating, metal from the solution is deposited on the object.

Question 76: Heating Element

Which material is generally used as the heating element of an electric heater?

A) Copper
B) Nichrome
C) Iron
D) Aluminium
Correct Answer: B) Nichrome

Explanation: Nichrome is an alloy with high resistance and a high melting point, so it gets red hot without melting.

Question 77: MCB

A miniature circuit breaker (MCB) is used in houses to

A) cut off the current automatically when it becomes too high
B) measure the current
C) increase the current
D) store electricity
Correct Answer: A) cut off the current automatically when it becomes too high

Explanation: An MCB works like a fuse but switches off the circuit when the current is too large, and it can be switched on again.

Question 78: Oersted's Discovery

When current flows through a wire placed near a compass needle, the needle gets deflected. This shows the

A) chemical effect of electric current
B) magnetic effect of electric current
C) heating effect of electric current
D) lighting effect of electric current
Correct Answer: B) magnetic effect of electric current

Explanation: A current-carrying wire produces a magnetic field, which deflects the compass needle.

Question 79: Ray at the Mirror

A ray of light strikes a plane mirror so that it makes an angle of 30° with the surface of the mirror. What is the angle of reflection?

30°r = ?NormalIncident rayReflected ray
A) 120°
B) 30°
C) 60°
D) 90°
Correct Answer: C) 60°

Explanation: The angle of incidence is measured from the normal: 90° − 30° = 60°. The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence, so it is 60°.

Question 80: Mirrors at Right Angles

Two plane mirrors are placed at 90° to each other and a candle is placed between them. How many images are formed?

A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
Correct Answer: A) 3

Explanation: Number of images = 360°/angle − 1 = 360°/90° − 1 = 3.

Question 81: Rear-View Mirror

Vehicles use a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror because it

A) forms only real images
B) gives an upright, smaller image and a wide field of view
C) forms an inverted image
D) gives a magnified image
Correct Answer: B) gives an upright, smaller image and a wide field of view

Explanation: A convex mirror always forms an erect, smaller virtual image and lets the driver see a large area behind.

Question 82: Mirror Word

Which of these words looks exactly the same in a plane mirror placed to its right (left–right reversal)?

A) MOM
B) DAD
C) SIT
D) POP
Correct Answer: A) MOM

Explanation: Only letters that are symmetrical about a vertical line look unchanged. M and O are symmetrical, but D and P are not.

Question 83: Walking Toward a Mirror

A girl walks towards a plane mirror at 2 m/s. At what speed does her image approach her?

A) 8 m/s
B) 2 m/s
C) 1 m/s
D) 4 m/s
Correct Answer: D) 4 m/s

Explanation: The image is as far behind the mirror as she is in front. When she moves 2 m closer, her image also moves 2 m closer to the mirror, so the gap between them closes at 2 + 2 = 4 m/s.

Question 84: Splitting Sunlight

The splitting of white light into its seven colours is called

A) reflection
B) magnification
C) dispersion
D) lateral inversion
Correct Answer: C) dispersion

Explanation: A prism splits white light into violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. A rainbow is formed by the same process in water drops.

Question 85: Burning Paper with a Lens

A lens can focus sunlight on paper to burn it. This lens must be

A) a plane sheet of glass
B) a concave lens made of thin plastic
C) convex
D) concave
Correct Answer: C) convex

Explanation: A convex lens is thicker in the middle and converges parallel rays to a point.

Question 86: Plane Mirror Image

The image formed by a plane mirror is

A) virtual, erect and of the same size as the object
B) virtual, inverted and smaller than the object
C) real, erect and larger than the object
D) real, inverted and of the same size as the object
Correct Answer: A) virtual, erect and of the same size as the object

Explanation: A plane mirror image cannot be caught on a screen (virtual). It is upright, the same size as the object, and laterally inverted.

Question 87: Producer

In a forest ecosystem, which of these is a producer?

A) Teak tree
B) Deer
C) Tiger
D) Fungus
Correct Answer: A) Teak tree

Explanation: Trees make their own food by photosynthesis, so they are producers. Deer are herbivores, tigers are carnivores and fungi are decomposers.

Question 88: Forest Food Chain

Which is a correct forest food chain?

A) Grass → Deer → Tiger
B) Grass → Tiger → Deer
C) Deer → Grass → Tiger
D) Tiger → Deer → Grass
Correct Answer: A) Grass → Deer → Tiger

Explanation: The arrow points from the organism that is eaten to the one that eats it, starting with a producer.

Question 89: Making Humus

Fallen leaves and dead animals in a forest are converted into nutrient-rich humus by

A) herbivores
B) carnivores
C) bacteria and fungi
D) green plants
Correct Answer: C) bacteria and fungi

Explanation: Decomposers break down dead matter and return the nutrients to the soil.

Question 90: Cutting the Forest

Large-scale cutting of forests (deforestation) increases which gas in the atmosphere?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Oxygen
C) Nitrogen
D) Argon
Correct Answer: A) Carbon dioxide

Explanation: Fewer trees means less carbon dioxide is absorbed in photosynthesis. Burning or decaying wood also releases CO₂.

Question 91: Not a Forest Benefit

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of forests?

A) Increasing soil erosion
B) Providing a habitat for animals
C) Maintaining the water cycle
D) Reducing soil erosion
Correct Answer: A) Increasing soil erosion

Explanation: Tree roots bind the soil and help prevent erosion, so forests reduce erosion rather than increase it.

Question 92: Top Layer

The uppermost layer of a forest, formed by the crowns of tall trees, is called the

A) root layer
B) humus layer
C) undergrowth
D) canopy
Correct Answer: D) canopy

Explanation: The canopy receives most of the sunlight, and shrubs and herbs grow in the shade below it.

Question 93: Forest and Rain

Which statement describes the role of forests in the water cycle?

A) Forests remove all moisture from the air
B) Forests stop the evaporation of water
C) Forests make the soil impermeable to water
D) Roots absorb water and leaves release water vapour, which helps in rainfall
Correct Answer: D) Roots absorb water and leaves release water vapour, which helps in rainfall

Explanation: Trees take up water through roots and lose it as water vapour through transpiration, adding moisture to the air and helping cloud formation.

Question 94: Sewage Gas

Solid sludge settled during sewage treatment is decomposed by anaerobic bacteria. The useful gas produced can be used as

A) biogas (fuel)
B) an oxygen supply
C) fertiliser
D) drinking water
Correct Answer: A) biogas (fuel)

Explanation: The sludge is decomposed in a separate tank without oxygen, producing biogas that can be used for cooking or to generate electricity.

Question 95: Treatment Order

Which is the correct order of steps in a sewage treatment plant?

A) Settling → bar screen → chlorination → grit removal
B) Grit removal → chlorination → bar screen → settling
C) Chlorination → bar screen → settling → grit removal
D) Bar screen → grit removal → settling → chlorination
Correct Answer: D) Bar screen → grit removal → settling → chlorination

Explanation: Large objects are removed by bar screens, then sand and grit settle. Solids settle in the tank and the clear water is disinfected with chlorine.

Question 96: Chlorine's Job

Chlorine is added to treated water mainly to

A) increase its oxygen content
B) kill disease-causing germs
C) give it a pleasant colour
D) remove sand
Correct Answer: B) kill disease-causing germs

Explanation: Chlorination disinfects the water before it is released.

Question 97: Septic Tank

In places without a sewerage system, toilet waste is treated in a septic tank. The waste is decomposed there by

A) green plants
B) chlorine gas
C) sunlight
D) anaerobic bacteria
Correct Answer: D) anaerobic bacteria

Explanation: Anaerobic bacteria in the tank break down the human waste. The liquid soaks into the soil and gases escape through a vent pipe.

Question 98: Water-borne Disease

Which of these diseases is spread mainly by contaminated water?

A) Dengue
B) Malaria
C) Chickenpox
D) Cholera
Correct Answer: D) Cholera

Explanation: Cholera, typhoid and hepatitis A spread through contaminated water. Malaria and dengue are spread by mosquitoes.

Question 99: Oil in the Drain

Cooking oil and grease should not be poured down the drain because they

A) turn into harmless gases
B) make the water cleaner
C) help bacteria decompose the sewage
D) clog the pipes and make water treatment harder
Correct Answer: D) clog the pipes and make water treatment harder

Explanation: Oil and grease harden in pipes, block the flow and harm the bacteria that clean wastewater. They should be disposed of in the dustbin.

Question 100: Good Household Practice

Which household practice helps to reduce water pollution?

A) Pouring paint into the drain
B) Composting kitchen waste instead of washing it down the drain
C) Throwing used medicines into a river
D) Washing pesticides down the drain
Correct Answer: B) Composting kitchen waste instead of washing it down the drain

Explanation: Chemicals, medicines and paints should never enter water bodies. Kitchen waste can be turned into compost.